USMLE STEP 3 MCQ 19 : A sixty year old has symptomatic rectal prolapse

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Question:
A sixty year old has symptomatic rectal prolapse that has been refractory to conservative and medical treatment. Definite surgical treatment would be expected to include

a) resection of the sigmoid colon
b) right hemicolectomy
c) left hemicolectomy
d) transverse colectomy
e) internal sphincterotomy

 


Correct Answer: A

 

Explanation:


Surgery may be performed for refractory rectal descent. The colon is shortened by removing the sigmoid colon (sigmoid resection). The sides of the rectum are lifted up and sewn with suspender stitches to the sacrum (rectopexy). The space between the rectum and vagina is closed to support the rectum and to prevent the intestines from filling this space.


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