Question Number 1312

Question:
The following are true of amebic liver abscesses

a) they are the most common world-wide cause of liver abscesses
b) The most common location for amebic abscess is in the left lobe of the liver.
c) a round shape is more prevalent in hepatic amebic abscesses than in pyogenic liver abscesses
d) they are more likely to rupture into the chest than the peritoneum
e) aspiration of the abscess is contraindicated in pregnancy

Question Number 1311

Question:
Sonographic features of a normal appendix include the following

a) maximum outer diameter of the appendix of 10 mm or less
b) maximum thickness of the wall of the appendix of 2 mm or less
c) the absence of peristalsis
d) an inner echogenic submucosal ring
e) a high vascularity

Question Number 1310

Question:
In the evaluation of an adnexal mass

a) An abnormal serum CA-125 increases the likelihood of malignancy
b) A high resistive index increases the likelihood of malignancy
c) In women of menstrual age, the most common anechoic cyst is the luteal cyst
d) Paraovarian cysts vary with size during the menstrual cycle
e) Dermoids are the most common ovarian neoplasm

Question Number 1309

Question:
Wilms tumour

a) has an annual incidence of about one in a thousand children <15 years
b) cells of Wilms tumours are likely to demonstrate deletions involving loci on chromosome 21
c) is usually bilateral at presentation
d) is the commonest cause of an enlarged kidney in childhood
e) A multiloculated and cystic appearance is associated with a better prognosis

Question Number 1308

Question:
Basilar artery aneurysms

a) may cause compression of the fourth ventricle
b) typically spare the basilar bifurcation
c) are more common than aneurysms of the posterior communicating artery
d) angiography in patients with dilated basilar arteries carries a significant risk
e) are more likely to present with isolated rather than multiple cranial nerve involvement

Question Number 1307

Question:
Regarding sarcoidosis

a) the presence of enlarged mediastial lymph nodes without hilar adenopathy is more common in relatively younger age groups
b) intrathoracic lymphadenopathy occurs in over 50% of sarcoidosis patients
c) hilar node calcification is more likely to be bilateral in TB than in sarcoidosis
d) patterns of CT parenchymal changes correlate well with pulmonary function test results
e) Scintigraphy has no useful role in identifying extrathoracic sites of involvement

Question Number 1306

Question:
The following are true of congenital heart disease in newborn infants

a) Ventricular septal defects are most commonly of the membranous type
b) patent ductus arteriosus is associated with the rubella syndrome
c) in truncus arteriosus the right and left pulmonary arteries usually arise directly from the sides of the persistent trunk
d) In the tetralogy of Fallot the aorta typicaly overrides the interventricular septum
e) co-arctation of the aorta is a common cause of heart failure in the neonate

Question Number 1305

Question:
The following are true of Intralobar Sequestrations

a) they receive a systemic arterial supply from the aorta
b) the abnormal segment of lung tissue lacks a normal communication to the tracheobronchial tree
c) drainage by normal pulmonary veins into the left atrium
d) manifestation as a soft-tissue mass in the lower lobe on CT
e) mismatched defects on ventilation and perfusion radionuclide studies

Question Number 1303

Question:
Increased diastolic flow in the renal arteries is typically caused by

a) Renal cell carcinoma
b) Renal vein thrombosis
c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Ureteric obstruction
e) acute pyelonephritis

Question Number 1304

Question:
In the imaging of blunt abdominal trauma

a) ultrasound has a sensitivity of over 50% in diagnosing intra-abdominal injuries
b) a small hyperdense spleen on a contrast CT is a sign of hypovolema
c) intra-abdominal injury is unlikely in the absence of free fluid within the peritoneum
d) the use of oral contrast in CT is contraindicated
e) clotted blood typically has an attenuation of less than 100HU on CT

Question Number 1302

Question:
The following are true of vesico-ureteral reflux in children

a) Reflux nephropathy accounts for over half of all end-stage renal failure
b) is very likely to occur when the ureter enters a diverticulum
c) In duplicated systems reflux is more common in the ureter which enters the bladder higher
d) Reflux is seen in about 15% of cases of posterior urethral valves
e) Grade I reflux with no ureteral dilatation will cease spontaneously with maturation in over half the cases

Question Number 1301

Question:
the following would be highly suggestive of the presence of a blighted ovum on an abdominal ultrasound

a) a gestational sac of 1 mL with no identifiable embryo
b) a gestational sac of 16 mm of mean diameter without a yolk sac
c) a gestational sac of 30 mm of mean diameter without an embryo
d) the absence of an embryo at 6 weeks of gestation
e) bleeding in the first trimester

Question Number 1300

Question:  
the following are recognised causes of a periosteal reaction

a) histiocytoma
b) hypervitaminosis A
c) aneurysmal bone cyst
d) Gaucher's disease
e) osteoid osteoma

Question Number 1299

Question:
hepatomegaly

a) is present if the craniocaudal dimension of the liver in the mid-clavicular line is 18cm
b) increased liver echogenicity on US is a sign of acute hepatitis
c) in Wilson's disease is due to iron accumulation in hepatocytes
d) right lobe enlargement typically causes displacement of the second part of the duodenum
e) occurs in sarcoidosis

Question Number 1298

Question:
Eosinophilic lung disease

a) may occur secondary to steroid medication
b) Wegener's granulomatosis is characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
c) is associated with Crohn's disease
d) may be caused by filariasis
e) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is usually associated with a history of asthma

Question Number 1297

Question:
The following are true of middle ear masses

a) involvement of the attic in acquired cholesteatomas occurs late
b) Cholesterol granulomas give off a low intensity signal on T1 weighted MRI
c) cholesteatomas are isointense to brain on T1 weighted MRI immages
d) Glomus tympanicum is the commonest tumor in the middle ear
e) the middle ear is the commonest site for RHABDOMYOSARCOMA in children

Question Number 1295

Question:
The following are expected imaging features of a hypernephroma at presentation

a) involvement of the contralateral kidney in 20%
b) brain metastases in 30%
c) absence of contrast excretion on an IVP in renal vein involvement
d) a mass of low echogenicity on ultrasound in most cases
e) tortuous feeding vessels on angiography

Question Number 1294

Question:
The following may cause a raised alkaline phosphatase

a) prostatic bone metastases
b) fibrous dysplasia
c) hypophosphatasia
d) Paget's disease
e) tumoral cacinosis (LIPOCALCINOGRANULOMATOSIS)

Question Number 1293

Question:
the following are features of breast malignancy on ultrasound

a) thin echogenic capsule
b) hyperechoic
c) microlobulations
d) ellipsoid shape
e) spiculated capsule

Question Number 1296

Question:
the following are causes of coarse gastric folds

a) pernicious anemia
b) endometriosis
c) portal vein obstruction
d) primary amyloidosis
e) chronic pancreatitis

Question Number 1292

Question:
the following predispose to upper lobe fibrosis

a) bleomycin
b) Nitrofurantoin[Macrodontin]
c) asbestosis
d) sarcoidosis
e) scleroderma

Question Number 1291

Question:
in SPECT of the heart

a) in asymptomatic patients reduced uptake in the anterior wall is most likely to be breast attenuation
b) a lack of uptake in the apex and the inferior wall at rest is consistent with a transmural MI
c) LAD infarcts are likely to be more extensive in relatively older men
d) a significant fall in blood pressure is more significant following Dobutamine infusion than following physical stress
e) severe LV dilatation causes reduced uptake in the inferior wall

Question Number 1290

Question:
in hepatic veno-occlusive disease

a) the major veins demonstrate normal hepatofugal flow
b) the resistive index of the hepatic artery is lowered
c) is usually caused by use of oral contraceptives
d) an acute presentation is uncommon
e) The caudate lobe is often enlarged

Question Number 1289

Question:
Typical features of psoriatic arthritis include

a) most of patients with psoriasis have radiological evidence of sacro-iliac arthritis
b) scintigraphy scan is more sensitive than plain radiography in detecting myelomatous lesions
c) destruction of the interphalangeal joint of the 1st toe
d) symmetric axial skeleton involvement
e) extensive juxtaarticular osteoporosis

Question Number 1288

Question:
regarding ovarian tumours

a) Serous adenocarcinoma is more commonly bilateral than mucinous
b) the use of oral contraceptives is a risk factor for ovarian cancer
c) Sertoli-Leydig tumours of the ovary are typically estrogen secreting
d) Fat saturation MRI images are of value in diagnosing cystic teratomas
e) RI (Resistive index) values of  intratumoral areas can differentiate between benign and malignant ovarian tumours

Question Number 1287

Question:
Radiological features consistent with primary lymphomas of the brain include

a) non-enhancement after administration of contrast material
b) a high signal relative to gray matter on T1
c) a ring pattern on MRI in immuno-compromised patients
d) avascularity on angiography
e) low metabolism on PET

Question Number 1286

Question:
regarding BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA

a) adenocarcinoma is the most common cell type of bronchogenic carcinoma seen in nonsmokers
b) squamous cell carcinoma  more likely to be associated with hypocalcaemia than hypercalcemia
c) cavitation is typical of squamous cell carcinoma
d) a T3 classification in TNM staging implies a tumour size of at least 2 cms
e) the histological diagnosis of large cell carcinoma is made mainly by exclusion

Question Number 1285

Question:
regarding the gastro-intestinal manifestations of scleroderma

a) gastro-intestinal manifestations are commoner than pulmonary manifestations
b) small bowel involvement is typically represented on a small bowel follow-through examination by a prolonged transit time
c) in colonic involvement the colonic haustrations become very prominent
d) thickened small bowel folds
e) hepatomagaly

Question Number 1284

Question:
The following are features of Down's syndrome

a) anterior scalloping of vertebral bodies
b) atlantoaxial subluxation in over 80%
c) The incidence of leukemia is increased by over 100 times
d) hypoplasia of the sinuses
e) a recognised association with Hirschprung's disease

Question Number 1283

Question:
The following are true of pleural thickening

a) occupational exposure of asbestos is found in over 50% of malignant mesotheliomas
b) may be secondary to histoplasmosis
c) when due to talcosis typically regresses after removal of exposure to the dust
d) when secondary to trauma tends to influence the visceral rather than the parietal pleura
e) benign mesotheliomas are associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

Question Number 1281

Question:
The following are true of aortic dissections

a) the ascending aorta is involved in the majority of cases
b) involvement of the ascending aorta should be managed conservatively
c) most patients have a history of hypertension
d) There is a recognised association with Marfan's syndrome
e) over 90% of dissecting aneurysms may be detected by MRI

Question Number 1282

Question:
in the differential diagnosis of cysts in the mesentery of the small bowel

a) lymphangiomas are usually uniloculated
b) gastrointestinal duplication cysts form over 10% of pediatric abdominal masses
c) mesothelial cysts are usually unilocular
d) enteric cysts are typically llined by bowel wall
e) omental cysts have a calcified wall in over 20%

Question Number 1280

Question:
regarding salivary gland pleomorphic adenomas

a) they are the most common salivary gland tumor
b) are commoner in the sub-mandibular than the parotid gland
c) in the parotid gland most commonly arise medial to the facial nerve
d) more common in males than in females
e) Typically enhance following intravenous contrast injection in CT

Question Number 1279

Question:
In blunt abdominal injuries

a) the small bowel is most likely to be transected in the distal ileum
b) generalised thickening of the small bowel is usually secondary to extensive intramural hematoma
c) the spleen is the organ most commonly injured
d) liver lacerations are associated with a rib fracture in over 30%
e) in pancreatic duct injuiries the serum amylase is typically elevated

Question Number 1278

Question:
Hydroxyapatite crystal deposition disease

a) deposition is usually extra-articular
b) the onset is usually between between the ages of 40 and 70 years
c) most commonly affects the spine
d) the ESR is typically elevated
e) in elderly women causes destructive shoulder arthropathy

Question Number 1277

Question:
The following are true of priapism

a) there is a association with diabetes mellitus in most cases
b) High flow priapism is more common than the veno-occlusive form
c) poorly oxygenated blood within the corpora cavernosa is indicative of low flow (veno-occlusive)priapism
d) the treatment of choice for arterial priapism is intracavernous administration of alpha-adrenergic agonists
e) a peak systolic velocity of 1 metre per second in the cavernosal arteries is abnormal

Question Number 1275

Question:
In neuropathic arthropathy

a) in the first hour MR detects a hematoma with more sensitivity than CT
b) the elbows are frequently involved in syringomyelia
c) involved joints are reflected by hot spots on bone scans
d) a markedly increased ESR
e) shoulder involvement is common in neurosyphilis

Question Number 1274

Question:
Known assocations of medullary nephrocalcinosis include

a) parathyroid adenoma
b) sarcoidosis
c) urine with a pH of less than 3
d) tetracycline
e) diabetes mellitus

Question Number 1273

Question:
Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

a) is most common between the ages of 25 and 35 years
b) The ulcers are usually located on the posterior rectal wall
c) there is a strong association with rectal prolapse
d) The epithelial cells demonstrate cytologic atypia
e) The surrounding mucosa is usually normal

Question Number 1272

Question:
The following are true of chronic granulamatous disease of childhood

a) it is caused by monocytic dysfunction
b) it is an autosomally dominant condition
c) may cause gastric outlet obstruction
d) is a cause of calcified foci in the liver
e) is more severe when affecting boys

Question Number 1270

Question:
The following are recognised causes of hot spots on a bone scan in the region of the thorax

a) mycocardial infarction
b) nipples
c) renal failure
d) mitral stenosis
e) pericarditis

Question Number 1271

Question:
the fetal biparietal diameter

a) should be measured from the inner edge of the calvarium
b) the disease most commonly presents itself as an osteoarthritis
c) typically spares the patello-femoral joint space cartilage
d) sub-chondral fragmentation is characteristic
e) the crystals give off a positive birefringent diffraction pattern

Question Number 1269

Question:
Known assocations of medullary nephrocalcinosis include

a) parathyroid adenoma
b) sarcoidosis
c) urine with a pH of less than 3
d) tetracycline
e) diabetes mellitus

Question Number 1268

Question:
The following are typical features of pigmented villonodular synovitis

a) tends to involve multiple joints at the same time
b) rarely occurs under the age of forty years of age
c) early extensive soft tissue calcification
d) subchondral pressure erosion at margins of joint
e) low-intensity signal areas on both T1- and T2-weighted sequences

Question Number 1267

Question:
the following are true of cerebral AVMs

a) they typically produce a pronounced mass effect
b) malformations located above the tentorium present with hemorrhage more frequently than those lying below
c) patients without a history of a bleed are highly unlikely to show any evidence of iron deposition on MRI
d) the steal phenomenon is of significant clinical importance in the symptomatology of AVMs
e) AVMs with only one draining vein are more susceptible to hemorrhage

Question Number 1265

Question:
The following significantly influence the incidence of arterial occlusion following peripheral arteriography

a) the site of stenosis
b) the length of time between arteriography and PTA
c) the presence of hypertension
d) the presence of diabetes
e) anti-platelet medication

Question Number 1264

Question:
pulmonary manifestations of cystic fibrosis include

a) frequent anaerobic infections
b) there is almost invariably evidence of bronchiectasis at one year of age
c) hypertrophic pulmonary osteodystrophy is rare
d) the main pulmonary arteries are usually narrowed
e) there is a predilection for the posterior segments of the upper lobes

Question Number 1263

Question:
The following are typical causes of upper zone pulmonary fibrosis AND volume loss

a) scleroderma
b) sarcoidosis
c) ankylosing spondylitis
d) extrinsic allergic alveolitis
e) sulfa drugs

Question Number 1262

Question:
features of sarcoidosis include

a) presentation with erythema nodosum in about 30%
b) a pleural effusion is present in about 2%
c) cranial nerve neuropathy is commonest in the trigeminal nerve
d) small joints are rarely involved
e) uveitis occurs in about 2%

Question Number 1261

Question:
choriocarcinoma

a) there is a history of a hydatiform mole in over 90%
b) the HCG levels are elevated in over 90%
c) metastates is mainly by direct extension
d) demonstrates a mixed hyperechoic pattern
e) frequently presents with persistent vaginal bleeding